Fatawa Answer

Question: Using "Miya" with Allah (Follow-up)

ID: 118

Name: Beliefs

Question

Assalamualaikum Warahmatullah 

This question is in response to the question number 45 where I was asked to provide more details of why using the word “Miya” with Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala is against verse 80 of surah al- A'araf. The verse is translated (more or less to):

To Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala belongs the best names, so invoke Him by them.

The issue is that the word "Miya" could be used in many different contexts. It could be used to refer to a husband or any other male individual. It may also be used to give respect to a man. In this context, I think that associating this word with Him is ascribing defect to His name as it is not befitting of His majesty.

Your clarification in this matter will be greatly appreciated.

JazakAllahu Khaira

Answer

الجواب وباللہ التوفیق

Walaikumassalam Warahmatullah

It is true that the word “miya” has many meanings including master, head, owner, huzoor, overseer, husband, prince, teacher, respected, friend etc. (Ferozul-Lughat 667), but from these many possible meanings, the usage of the word in its context defines its exact meanings. When this word is used with Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala, it means master, head and owner in that context and this word is used to give respect to the majesty of Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala and is not used with any other meanings. Therefore, there is no harm in using this word with Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala and there is no aspect of disrespect associated with it in this case.

If the rationale behind your question is that the only names used in the Quran can be used for Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala and no other names can be considered then it should be noted that Torah, Bible, Zabur and other pages revealed to the ambiya were in languages other than Arabic and other words were used for Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala. Would this reasoning not render those names as incorrect? In addition, Imam Bukhari Rahmatullah Aleh has mentioned a name of Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala with reference from Hazrat Akrama which has not been mentioned in the Quran. Will that name also be considered incorrect?

وَقَالَ عِكْرِمَةُ جَبْرَ وَمِيكَ وَسَرَافِ عَبْدٌ إِيلْ اللَّهُ(کتاب التفسیر:سورۃ البقرۃ: بَاب {مَنْ كَانَ عَدُوًّا لِجِبْرِيلَ)

Therefore, only insisting upon such names which have been mentioned in the Quran is incorrect. Names in other languages which have been specifically used for Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala, using them is appropriate and all such names are considered respectful with the consensus of the ummah. However, using such names for Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala, which have been used by the followers of other religions for their false gods, is considered impermissible.

If the intent of your question is that the words which are used for the creation, how can they be used for Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala, then the following explanation shall clarify this suspicion. Changing the surroundings and context of usage of a word changes its meanings and implications and this is proven by Quran. And by such usage, there is no fault attributed towards the majesty of Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala.

For example, in the verse below:

إن اللہ وملائکتہ یصلون علی النبي

The association of Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala towards the word Salat will have a different meaning as compared to its association with the word Malaikah. Similarly, a lot of people have names such as Raheem, which has been mentioned in the Quran as well, and these people are called by these names. However, this and many other such terms and names have been used by Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala for the creation as well. It became evident that the terms which are used for the creation in addition to its usage with Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala, using such terms for the Creator has no harm and certainly do not attribute any fault to His majesty. In conclusion, it is no double preferred and recommended to use the names and qualities of Allah Subhanahu Wa Ta‘ala which have been mentioned in the nusoos.

من الأسماء التوقیفیۃ عَلَم، ومنہا ألقاب وأوصاف وترجمۃ اللفظ بمنزلتہ، فالأسماء العجمیۃ ترجمۃ تلک الألقاب والأوصاف، ولذا انعقد الإجماع علی إطلاقہا، نعم لا یجوز ترجمۃ العَلَم، فاللّٰہ علم والباقي ألقاب وأوصاف بخلاف المرادف العربي للأسماء العربیۃ؛ لأنہا لا ضرورۃ إلی إطلاقہا فلا یؤذن فیہا، أما العجم فیحتاجون إلی الترجمۃ للسہولۃ في الفہم۔ (الیواقیت والجواہر لعبد الوہاب الشعراني ص: ۷۸ مصر، وکذا في إمداد الفتاویٰ / مسائل شتی ۴؍۵۱۳ دار العلوم کراچی)

As far as the reference to and the translation of the verse 80 of Surah al-A‘araf is concerned, the description in your question is incorrect. Here is the correct verse along with the correct translation:

وَلُوطًا إِذْ قَالَ لِقَوْمِهِ أَتَأْتُونَ الْفَاحِشَةَ مَا سَبَقَكُمْ بِهَا مِنْ أَحَدٍ مِنَ الْعَالَمِينَ(الاعراف:۸۰)

And (We sent) Lut (Lot) when he said to his people, “Do you commit the shameful act in which nobody in the world has ever preceded you?

واللہ اعلم بالصواب

Answered On: Sunday, Nov 12, 2017 | N/A

Answered By: Mufti Mohammed Ataur Rahman Sajid

Checked By: Mufti Mohammed Navalur Rahman